Under the assumption that the power series
\(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n}(x-x_{0})^{n}\) converges at
\(y\ne x_{0}\text{,}\) we know that
\(a_{n}(y-x_{0})^{n} \to 0\) as
\(n\to \infty\text{.}\) Thus there exists some
\(C\gt 0\) such that
\(\vert a_{n}(y-x_{0})^{n}\vert \le C\) for all
\(n\text{.}\)
For any \(z\) with \(|z-x_{0}| \lt |y-x_{0}|\text{,}\) we can find some \(0 \lt r \lt |y-x_{0}|\) such that \(|z-x_{0}|\le r \text{.}\) In fact, for any \(0 \lt r \lt |y-x_{0}|\text{,}\) it follows from
\begin{equation*}
\vert a_{n}( z-x_{0})^{n}\vert \le \vert a_{n} (y-x_{0})^{n} \vert \frac{\vert z-x_{0}\vert^{n}}{\vert y-x_{0}\vert^{n}} \le
C \left(\frac{r}{\vert y-x_{0}\vert}\right)^{n}
\end{equation*}
for all \(z\) with \(|z-x_{0}| \le r\) and the comparison test with the geometric series \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left(\frac{r}{\vert y-x_{0}\vert}\right)^{n}\) that \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n}(z-x_{0})^{n}\) converges absolutely and uniformly for \(z\) such that \(|z-x_{0}|\le r\text{.}\) Since we can take any such \(r \lt |y-x_{0}|\text{,}\) we conclude that \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n}(z-x_{0})^{n}\) converges absolutely at any \(z\) with \(|z-x_{0}| \lt |y-x_{0}|\text{.}\)